Saturday, September 1, 2012

Overcharged On The Vig?

Question: Ok i need some help understanding something. This is the second time i’ve had this happen to me. I’m not grasping the concept.

Normally a casino makes you pay a dollar for every 20 you bet when it comes to the vig(5%). Well lately i’ve been playing at four winds in MI. I’ve been playing on the crapless craps table

They are doing some kind of combined vig. I don’t understand at all so i will do my best to explain it.

They allow you to buy at 10 dollars there. So i buy the 2 and 12 for $10 dollars each. I pay $1 vig for the two of them. Same for the 3 and 11, and 4 and 10. So its only $3 dollars to buy the 2,3,4,10,11,and 12 for $10 dollars on each number. All of which will then get payed at true odds. And i completely understand up to that point. Except when i start pressing. If i press the 4 or 10 to $20 dollars, the dealer was asking for a $2 dollar vig. Where as i would normally just pay $1 for the $20 dollar bet. They are taking the vig upfront, which is fine, but why do i pay $2?




First, let's clarify what you're experiencing.  You come up to the table, and let's say you have only $63 in cash on you.  You buy-in for the whole $63, and buy the 2, 3, 4, 10, 11 and 12 for $10 each.  Your vig is $3 on your $60 total action.  At your casino, they probably take an additional $1 vig every time your total action increases by $10 over the "standard" $20 increment (it may even be less... you'll have to ask the casino what their breakage policy is).  Since it costs you $63 to book your desired bets, you have nothing in your rail in front of you.

YOUR SCENARIO:
Now, the 4 hits.  You want to press the 4 to $20.  Before the vig, the payout is $20.  In order to make your desired press, the dealer subtracts $10 from your payout to increase your bet, but also takes a $2 vig... at which point you start scratching your head.  The dealer gives you $8 change ($20 - $10 - $2 = $8), and this is what you have in your rail now.

THE CASINO'S LOGIC:
$70 total action requires a $4 vig at this casino and the only vig that has been (pre)paid after the 4 hits is $2.  Hence, they charge you an additional $2 for pressing to $70 total action.  Consider this...

ALTERNATE SCENARIO:
The 4 hits... but this time, you come down on the 4.  The dealer gives you a total of $30 ($20 payout + $10 original bet = $30), and this is what you put in your rail*.  Additionally, you decide that you want to come down on all of your other buy bets.  So he is going to give you the other $50 plus whatever vig is left.  Since your 4 already hit, $1 worth of vig has already been "used up".  Therefore, there is $2 in unused vig.  The dealer gives you back this $52, and now you have a total of $82 in your rail.

BUT... now you want to have your original setup of $63 buy bets PLUS the press on the 4 to $20.  So you will have $10 each on the 2, 3, 10, 11 and 12 plus $20 on the 4.  Since that is $70 total action, the casino must charge you a $4 vig (every $10, remember?).  So... you've got $82 in your rail, and you have to give the dealer $74 for your desired bets.  What have you got left in your rail?  $8... the same ending result as what you've been experiencing.

I hope that clarifies what you've been experiencing.

* - This is a somewhat simplified explanation so you will follow the logic.  You should see what happens if you just come down on the 4.  Technically, they should still charge you $1 for coming down.  This is because your $50 action remaining needs a $3 vig and only $2 hasn't been "used up".  That would give you $29 and down on the 4.  But... if you then came down on all of your other bets, that would now be an additional $53.  $53 + $29 = $82.  When you set up your $74 action, you'll still be left with $8, so the fact that they probably charge you $1 for coming down does not change the end result.






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